ASC 820 Valuation: From GP Gut Feel to an Auditable Number
Author: Redwood Valuation Content Team
Published: July 13, 2026
ASC 820 valuation measures an asset at fair value, the exit price a market participant would receive to sell it on the measurement date. It tells you how to measure, not when you must report, and its "fair value" is a different measurement from the "fair market value" used in a 409A valuation; the two are not interchangeable. For a fund CFO, the standard isn't an academic exercise. The job is producing portfolio-company values that survive your year-end audit, and that's where most of the real work happens.
This guide walks the full path: the measurement framework, the scoping standard that puts your fund on the hook, the allocation methods for complex cap tables, the backsolve and a trap that's easy to miss, the two errors auditors reliably push back on, and what it takes to get a number signed off. We've drawn on the FASB codification, the AICPA's portfolio-valuation guide, and our own ASC 820 practice.
What ASC 820 Valuation Is (and What It Isn't)
ASC 820 valuation measures an asset at fair value, the exit price a market participant would receive to sell it on the measurement date. It governs how you measure, not when you must report. And the "fair value" it defines is a different measurement from the "fair market value" used in a 409A valuation; the two are not interchangeable.
Fair value has a precise meaning here. Under ASC 820, it's the price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement date. That's an exit price, not an entry price. It's a market-based measurement rather than an entity-specific one, so it reflects what the market would pay, not what the holder thinks the asset is worth. ASC 820 codifies what was originally FASB Statement No. 157 (SFAS 157), issued in 2006 (effective for fiscal years beginning after November 15, 2007) and folded into the Codification as ASC 820 in 2009, and the exit-price framing has anchored it ever since.
The distinction from 409A trips up a lot of people, and it matters in dollars. The two standards measure different things, and they measure different units. ASC 820's unit of account is the fund's actual holdings, often preferred shares. A 409A valuation's unit is a single share of common stock for tax purposes. Whether a separate discount for lack of marketability (DLOM) is appropriate for preferred shares held by a fund under ASC 820 depends heavily on the facts and circumstances and on whether marketability considerations are already reflected elsewhere in the valuation. The guidance is principles-based, with no bright line. A holder who controls the exit and shares the same rights as the marginal market participant may have no real marketability gap, and so little or no discount. A minority preferred holder (fewer rights, less information, no sway over the exit) is in a meaningfully worse position, and that gap can justify a discount, sometimes effected through the rights-and-allocation modeling rather than a freestanding percentage haircut. The point is that it's fact-dependent, not the reflexive haircut you'd apply to common shares in a 409A valuation.
ASC 820 vs. 409A in one line: fair value (an exit price, for financial reporting) versus fair market value (a single common share, for tax). Same company, different unit, different number.
Knowing how to measure fair value only matters once you're required to. For a fund, that requirement comes from a different standard entirely.
Who's on the Hook: ASC 946 and the Reporting Obligation
ASC 946 is what puts a fund on the hook. It scopes investment companies, venture capital, private equity, hedge funds, and business development companies into fair value reporting, requiring them to measure all investments at fair value with changes recognized through earnings. ASC 820 then governs how each holding is measured.
Keep the two standards paired but distinct. ASC 946 (Financial Services, Investment Companies) requires an investment company to measure all of its investments at fair value, with changes in fair value recognized through the statement of operations. ASC 820 (Fair Value Measurement) supplies the measurement framework that tells you how to arrive at each of those values. One sets who is in scope and on what measurement basis. The other answers how each value is measured. Reporting cadence comes from elsewhere, SEC rules for registered funds, the fund's LP agreements, and the scope of the auditor's engagement.
| Standard | What it governs | The question it answers |
|---|---|---|
| ASC 946 | Scope and measurement basis | Who must report at fair value, and on what basis |
| ASC 820 | Measurement framework | How each holding's fair value is measured |
Whether a fund falls under ASC 946 is determined in two stages. Entities registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 qualify automatically. Other entities are assessed against three fundamental characteristics: they obtain funds from investors, they invest for capital appreciation or investment income, and they don't pursue operating or strategic benefits from their holdings. In practice, most VC and PE funds land inside ASC 946 comfortably, so this is less a test you run each year than the reason your holdings get measured at fair value at all.
Once a holding is in scope, ASC 820 sorts it by the quality of the inputs behind its value. That's the fair value hierarchy.
The Fair Value Hierarchy (and Why Your Holdings Are Level 3)
The fair value hierarchy sorts a measurement by the quality of its inputs. Level 1 is quoted prices for identical assets in active markets. Level 2 is other observable inputs: quoted prices for similar assets in active markets, quoted prices for identical or similar assets in markets that aren't active, and other observable inputs like interest rates or volatility, including market-corroborated inputs. Level 3 is unobservable assumptions, the kind a valuation specialist has to build rather than read off a market: management forecasts, discount rates, marketability discounts, and volatility. Which inputs carry the weight depends on the company. For venture-backed companies, the forecasts, marketability discounts, and volatility usually do most of the work; for mature, profitable private-equity-backed companies, discount rates and a discounted cash flow play a larger role. Private portfolio holdings are almost always Level 3.
The categorization rule is the part people miss. A fair value measurement is categorized at the level of its lowest significant input. So a single unobservable input significant to the whole measurement drops the entire measurement to Level 3, even if other inputs are observable. The label isn't a quality grade. Level 3 involves more judgment, but a well-built Level 3 measurement can be every bit as defensible as a Level 1 one.
| Level | Input type | Typical fund example |
|---|---|---|
| Level 1 | Quoted prices, identical assets, active markets | A publicly traded position after a portfolio company's IPO |
| Level 2 | Other observable inputs (similar-asset quotes, inactive-market quotes, rates/volatility) | A holding priced off observable comparable transactions |
| Level 3 | Unobservable management assumptions | A private company valued from management forecasts (an option model, or a discounted cash flow for a mature business) |
Here's why this matters for you. Most venture and private equity portfolio holdings sit in Level 3 because the underlying companies are illiquid and lack observable market prices. There's no closing quote to point to. That's exactly what pulls auditor scrutiny toward your portfolio marks, and it's the reason the rest of this guide exists.
Because Level 3 means no observable price, the value has to be built. ASC 820 permits three approaches to build it.
The Three Approaches: Market, Income, Cost
ASC 820 recognizes three valuation approaches: the market approach, the income approach, and the cost approach. For Level 3 portfolio holdings, the market and income approaches do most of the work. Cost is a starting point, not a resting place.
Each approach answers a different question about value:
Market approach. Values the company against comparable transactions and trading multiples, including a recent financing round. When good comparables exist, this is often the most direct read on what a market participant would pay.
Income approach. Discounts the company's expected cash flows to present value, typically through a discounted cash flow model. It fits companies with forecastable economics.
Cost approach. Looks at the asset base or replacement cost. It rarely stands alone for an operating company, but it can anchor an early-stage holding with little operating history.
A recent financing round is a market-approach input, which is why the backsolve, covered below, sits inside the market approach rather than replacing it. The approaches set the total equity value. The allocation methods in the next section sit on top of whichever approach you use.
Picking an approach gives you a total equity value. For a company with multiple share classes, the harder question is how to split that value across them.
Allocation Methods: OPM, Waterfall, and the 'Not Mandatory' Truth
Once you have a company's total equity value, you allocate it across share classes. The method depends on facts and circumstances, not a rule; the AICPA VC/PE Practice Aid (Chapter 8) lays out the options and the conditions under which each fits. The real driver is the investor's degree of control over the timing of an exit; the minority-versus-majority label is a proxy for that control, not the thing itself. The Option Pricing Model (OPM) suits positions with uncertain exit timing that the investor can't dictate. The Current Value Method (CVM), which allocates value through a liquidation waterfall as if the company were sold at the measurement date, fits a holder who controls the exit. The Probability-Weighted Expected Return Method (PWERM) fits late-stage holdings where discrete exit scenarios can be enumerated. None is mandatory; the binding ASC 820 requirement is a market-participant fair value, not any specific allocation method. Although the OPM and CVM are often associated with minority and controlling positions respectively, the choice between them ultimately depends on the facts and circumstances: the OPM can be applied to a controlling interest, the CVM to a minority one, and exit timing is only one of the factors that bears on the selection.
The choice tracks who controls the exit. A minority investor can't dictate when a liquidity event happens, so the value of each share class depends on an uncertain time-to-exit. The OPM captures that uncertainty directly. A controlling holder can force the timing, which makes the OPM's time-to-exit feature unnecessary and sometimes distortive. For that holder, the Current Value Method, which allocates value through a liquidation waterfall by each class's rights as if the company sold at the measurement date, is often the better fit. This pattern is common practice, not a regulatory requirement, and in our experience, the facts decide it more often than any default does.
| Method | Typical stake | Why it fits | Mandatory? |
|---|---|---|---|
| Option Pricing Model | Minority | Captures uncertain time-to-exit the investor can't control | No |
| Current Value Method (CVM), via liquidation waterfall | Controlling | Investor controls exit timing, so time-to-exit modeling adds little | No |
| Probability-Weighted Expected Return Method (PWERM) | Late-stage / near-liquidity | Discrete exit scenarios can be enumerated and probability-weighted | No |
| Hybrid (OPM + PWERM) | In-between | Combines the OPM and PWERM as liquidity outcomes become clearer | No |
The Option Pricing Model treats each share class as a series of call options on total equity value, with strike points set by liquidation preferences and conversion terms. It uses a Black-Scholes framework, and its inputs are:
Total equity value
Volatility
Time to a liquidity event
The risk-free rate
Dividend yield (the fifth Black-Scholes input, typically assumed zero for portfolio companies but still part of the model)
The breakpoints and strike prices set by the cap-table waterfall, the liquidation preferences and conversion terms that make the OPM an allocation model rather than a simple option price
A word of caution on the tidy split above. The minority/majority pattern is a guide, not a law. Large minority positions with board influence blur the line, and as exit outcomes come into focus, many providers move to a hybrid method that combines two or more allocation approaches. In our practice, naming the hybrid up front tends to head off the objection that the minority-versus-majority framing is too clean.
All of these methods require a starting total equity value to allocate, which is where the market or income approaches in the prior section come back in. The most common way to get one for a recently funded company is the backsolve (a form of calibration), and the OPM it feeds carries a weakness that's easy to miss.
Calibration and the Backsolve
Calibration is the practice of anchoring your valuation assumptions to actual observed transactions in the company's own instruments, starting with the round in which the fund took its position and updating for any later observed transactions. It can apply to an implied transaction multiple (checked against the multiples in a guideline-public-company method) or to an implied discount rate (checked against the rate in a discounted-cash-flow analysis). The goal is consistency: the assumptions you carry into each measurement date should reconcile with what the market actually paid.
The backsolve is one form of calibration, not a synonym for it. A backsolve calibrates an option pricing model to a recent financing round: working backward through the model, you solve for the total equity value that reproduces the round price. Other forms of calibration (multiple-based or discount-rate-based) involve no backsolve at all. The most recent round priced the company's preferred stock at a known number, and the backsolve backs into the equity value that makes the model match it. That solved equity value then feeds a separate allocation step, where the OPM splits it across share classes.
The backsolve solves for total equity value by calibrating an option pricing model to a recent financing round. A separate allocation step then splits that value across share classes.
The Sandwich Problem: A Weakness in the OPM
The "sandwich problem" is a known limitation of the OPM itself, separate from calibration, and it's often missed even though the AICPA PE/VC Accounting and Valuation Guide (Practice Aid) addresses it directly.
Here are the mechanics. When the OPM models senior and junior preferred classes, the junior preferred's liquidation preference gets "sandwiched" between the senior preferred above it and the common below. On the downside, only the senior preferred is protected. On the upside, the junior preferred receives only its fixed payoff while common and converting (or participating) preferred capture the additional growth. The junior class is squeezed from both directions.
The reason the OPM mismodels this: it assumes value evolves passively toward a predetermined exit date. In reality, preferred investors influence operations and the timing of an exit. The size of the pie isn't fixed, and senior holders may do better by sharing value with junior holders than by enforcing the waterfall to the letter. The OPM captures none of that.
One way to address it, consistent with the Practice Aid: model the liquidation preferences as pari passu (equal, at a 1x multiple) when you estimate total equity value, then reallocate by the actual contractual seniorities, applying a calibration discount to the senior preferred's model value to reflect that its liquidation preference is worth less than the model implies. This is the one place calibration and the sandwich fix touch: the fix uses a calibration discount. But the sandwich problem itself is an OPM weakness, not a calibration step.
Illustrative only, not a client matter. A company raises a senior Series C with a 2x liquidation preference, but the Series C holders are a minority and can't force a sale. At a modest exit, the founders and earlier investors won't agree to a deal that pays the 2x in full, so the parties renegotiate toward pari passu. An OPM that locks in the 2x would understate common and junior preferred. Modeling pari passu first, then reallocating by actual rights with a calibration discount on the senior class, reflects what would really happen.
The correction matters most when the senior class can't unilaterally force a transaction; that's when its preference is most negotiable. In our practice, it's an easily skipped step, even though the Practice Aid spells it out.
The OPM modeled right avoids one trap. Two more errors get rejected at audit before the analysis even reaches the methodology.
Two Errors Auditors Push Back On
Two errors frequently draw auditor pushback: pricing every share class at the latest round (the "post-money methodology"), and treating the OPM's volatility input as a purely historical number. Both ignore something ASC 820 cares about, the different rights across classes, and the forward-looking nature of volatility.
Start with the post-money methodology. A fund sometimes takes a shortcut: if the latest round priced shares at $5, assume every class is worth $5. Auditors frequently challenge post-money methodologies that fail to account for differences in security rights, and the reason is structural. Different share classes carry different liquidation preferences, seniority, and participation rights. In a sale, junior classes would receive less than senior ones, so they can't all be worth the same nominal price. The error isn't using the round price as an input, which is legitimate. The error is treating all classes as equal in value despite unequal rights.
The volatility error is subtler. The OPM's volatility input is theoretically forward-looking. It's the expected volatility over the time to a liquidity event, not a mechanical lookback at past returns. In practice, providers use historical volatility as a proxy because future volatility is unknowable. That's fine, with one caveat: if the historical data contains anomalies that make it a poor predictor of the future, it should be adjusted. Treating the historical number as the answer rather than a proxy is what draws the pushback.
Both errors share a root. Each ignores that ASC 820 measures from a forward-looking, rights-aware, market-participant perspective. Get that frame right, and both problems mostly disappear.
Auditors push back on these errors because they hold the analysis to a standard. That standard is anchored, but not dictated, by the AICPA's portfolio-valuation guide.
The AICPA VCPE Guide: Guidance, Not a Mandate
The AICPA Accounting and Valuation Guide, Valuation of Portfolio Company Investments of Venture Capital and Private Equity Funds and Other Investment Companies, is the benchmark methodology reference for fund valuations, and it's nonauthoritative guidance. It recommends and illustrates. It doesn't require.
Developed under the AICPA Financial Reporting Executive Committee with input from a private equity and venture capital task force, the guide provides nonauthoritative guidance and illustrations for the accounting and valuation of portfolio company investments held by entities within the scope of ASC 946. It runs deep on methodology, with chapters on valuation approaches, simple versus complex capital structures, control and marketability, calibration, and backtesting. It's the most detailed methodology reference the industry has. None of it is binding.
That matters because the verbs you attach to each authority should match its weight:
| Source | Role | What it can support |
|---|---|---|
| ASC 946 | Binding standard | Scope and measurement basis, "requires" |
| ASC 820 | Binding standard | Measurement framework, "requires" |
| AICPA portfolio-valuation guide | Nonauthoritative guidance | Methodology, "recommends" / "addresses" |
ASC 820 and ASC 946 are the binding standards. The AICPA guide supplies the VC/PE-specific methodology on top of them as guidance. The practical consequence reinforces the point from the allocation section: even a task force recommendation calls for judgment under your facts and circumstances. It tells you what good practice looks like. It doesn't tell you that you must.
Standards and guidance set the bar. The day-to-day reality is getting a number an auditor will actually sign off on.
From Gut Feel to an Audited Number
An experienced GP's sense of a company's worth may be right, but it isn't auditable. Auditors need documented methodology, not intuition. An independent, third-party valuation often provides additional support that can facilitate the audit process, helping the auditor place reliance on the work and reducing the rounds of questions before sign-off.
This is worth saying carefully, because it's easy to hear it as a knock on GPs. It isn't. A general partner's read on a portfolio company is informed by years of pattern recognition, and it's often accurate. The problem is documentation, not accuracy. An auditor can't sign off on judgment they can't trace. They need a methodology, supporting assumptions, and a record they can test. That gap between informed judgment and auditable analysis is the whole reason fund finance teams bring in a specialist.
A conclusion-of-value report from an independent, reputable third-party provider is one of the best ways to give auditors comfort over fair value.
In our practice, funds bring in external specialists for two reasons: auditor scrutiny of Level 3 marks and the need to minimize bias in valuing them. Independence reduces the fund's natural incentive to report strong marks, and a specialist who documents in the way auditors expect makes the review move faster. To be clear about what that buys you: auditors place more reliance and ask fewer questions. They still test the specialist's work. Nobody gets an automatic sign-off.
In practice, an ASC 820 engagement runs through audit sign-off, not just up to the report:
The specialist values each holding using documented methodology.
The specialist reconciles the result to the client's expectations, investigating any material differences before they reach the auditor.
The audit firm reviews the analysis, often across multiple rounds of questions.
The auditor signs off.
The fund publishes financials to its limited partners.
NAV practical expedient (a sidebar). For qualifying ASC 946 investments, often fund-of-funds positions or look-through holdings, net asset value (NAV) is available as a practical expedient for estimating fair value. Under ASU 2015-07, investments measured at NAV per share as a practical expedient are no longer categorized within the fair value hierarchy, though they remain in the total for reconciliation. It's a real simplification, but it's limited to qualifying investments, not a general escape hatch.
The auditor's questions are part of the engagement, not an afterthought to the report. At Redwood, we value portfolio holdings through that sign-off, staying in the conversation while the auditor works rather than handing over a report and stepping away. If your team is heading into a year-end close, the earlier a specialist is involved, the fewer surprises surface when the auditor starts asking. LPs reviewing these numbers can also see what LPs should ask about fair value, and funds with controlling positions can read more on ASC 820 for private equity funds.
A few questions come up on nearly every ASC 820 engagement. Here are the direct answers.
Frequently Asked Questions
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No. ASC 820 measures "fair value," an exit price for financial reporting, while a 409A valuation measures the "fair market value" of a single common share for tax purposes. They use different standards and different units of account, so the same holding can produce different numbers. You can see how the 409A unit of account differs for the full contrast.
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No. ASC 820 governs how fair value is measured, not how often you report it. ASC 946 sets that funds must report investments at fair value, but reporting frequency comes from SEC rules for registered funds, the fund's LP agreements, and the scope of the auditor's engagement.
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No. The Option Pricing Model suits positions with uncertain exit timing the investor can't dictate, but the allocation method depends on facts and circumstances, chiefly the investor's degree of control over exit timing (minority versus majority is just a proxy for that control). The Current Value Method (a liquidation waterfall) fits a holder who controls the exit, the Probability-Weighted Expected Return Method fits late-stage holdings with enumerable exit scenarios, and a hybrid is sometimes used as exit outcomes become clearer.
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Because it assumes every share class is worth the latest round price, which ignores that classes carry different liquidation preferences and rights. In a sale, junior classes would receive less than senior ones despite the same nominal per-share price, so treating them as equal misstates value.
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For qualifying ASC 946 investments, net asset value (NAV) is available as a practical expedient. Under ASU 2015-07, those holdings are no longer categorized within the fair value hierarchy, though they remain in the total for reconciliation. The expedient is limited to qualifying investments, so it doesn't replace a full valuation for direct portfolio holdings.

